Ever since I started to trade, I used to wonder if the price movements in one direction increased the probability of price moving in the same direction the next day? With the help of computers, I was finally able to test this.
Data used:
Dow Jones Industrial Average from 1897 - Daily data. Total bars = 28,975 bars of data. It is well known that larger the sample size, more reliable the statistic.
Condition:
a = If Yesterday's close > (or lesser than) Close the day before And Today's close is > (or lesser than) Yesterday's close, 1 is plotted, otherwise, 0 is plotted.
The sum of a is added and divided by the total sample size (bars used).
I have used closing price here because I have only data for close in DJIA from 1897 - 1970.
Inference:
From 1987-2002, there existed a probabibility of 52.1914% that price will move in the same direction it did the previous day. Putting it in other terms, 47.8086% of the time, it moved in the opposite direction.
Assuming the next day's price is completely random, the probability it will move in the same direction should be 50% and the probability that it will not move in the same direction should be 50%.
Though by mere sight, it does not seem to be a significant difference from the expected figure of 50%,I have not done a statistical hypothesis testing to validate if it is a significant from the 50% mark or not. I have attached the test result.
I request the members to comment on this.
Obliged.
Data used:
Dow Jones Industrial Average from 1897 - Daily data. Total bars = 28,975 bars of data. It is well known that larger the sample size, more reliable the statistic.
Condition:
a = If Yesterday's close > (or lesser than) Close the day before And Today's close is > (or lesser than) Yesterday's close, 1 is plotted, otherwise, 0 is plotted.
The sum of a is added and divided by the total sample size (bars used).
I have used closing price here because I have only data for close in DJIA from 1897 - 1970.
Inference:
From 1987-2002, there existed a probabibility of 52.1914% that price will move in the same direction it did the previous day. Putting it in other terms, 47.8086% of the time, it moved in the opposite direction.
Assuming the next day's price is completely random, the probability it will move in the same direction should be 50% and the probability that it will not move in the same direction should be 50%.
Though by mere sight, it does not seem to be a significant difference from the expected figure of 50%,I have not done a statistical hypothesis testing to validate if it is a significant from the 50% mark or not. I have attached the test result.
I request the members to comment on this.
Obliged.
Last edited: