Hi All,
I want to start this new thread as there is something on my mind that has been bugging me for a long time and I would like to share it with the forum and hopefully get an answer.
Ok heres the premise, I am a value investor and normally stick to the contrarian calls based on value analysis. I am an investor and tend to hold my buys for a long time/3-5yrs
Currently I am looking at ONGC SAIL OIL and GRASIM all these stocks belong to
Mcap >10000Cr
Ev/ebitda < 10
Interest cover >4
ROCE>25 (trailing FY10) and
dividend yield (3yr avg n 1 yr) above 2% (except grasim -1.2%)
I would like to OWN these stocks, but think that based on the short term news flow/sentiment the stocks may slide even further. I think they are good buys even at current prices, but hey who doesnt like a discount if it can be had???
Now in classical sense of options, my american friends suggest to me that i should write a put option on the stock that i want own at Current Market Price (CMP) (10% lower strike price than CMP- 1 month expiry). Eg if CMP is Rs 100 I sud write a naked put option of strike price Rs 90. case 1 the stock price stay above the strike price Rs 90 I pocket the primium and get the stock at strike price. case 2 the stock price falls below the strike price of Rs 90 say to Rs 80 (20% drop in a month!) and I have to buy the stocks at strike price i.e. Rs 90 (which in theory still sud be a good deal as i was ready to buy them at a much higher price of Rs 100!!). This sounded full proof way for buying stocks at a discount 1 month later considering that I wud like to own at current CMP. whats 1 month to an investor with a 3-5 yrs perspective???
Now all said n done, in the indian scenario, options are settled in cash not in stocks and then there is the talk abt unlimited risk (??) associated with the naked put. Am I missing somethin??? how can the risk be unlimited when in the worse case scenario (of case 2 above) the stock price can only go to 0 ie max loss is (strike price* lot size-premium paid). Say in case of SAIL above 1 lot=1000 strike price say 150 (roughly 10% below CMP). Say i write a put option (1 month) and get a premium of approx Rs 2 ie Rs 2000 in all. Now in the worst case scenario if SAIL goes to 0 my loss 150*1000-2000= Rs 148000
This is very much a definite loss as opposed to unlimited loss!!!!! Rs 1.4l loss at the expense of a max profit of Rs 2k is bad... but the probability of SAIL going to 0 in a month is practically 0!!!! a more likely worse case scenario is Rs 100 (approx 25% loss) ie total loss 50*1000-2000= Rs 48000
Now considering that i was thinkin of owning the stock at Rs 166, if i had done so, one month later I wud have suffered Rs 66/share so if i wud have bot 1000 (ie rs 1.66lakh) shares my loss wud have been Rs 66k!!!
being a newbie in option writing I am not sure if all the things that I wrote above make sense or is there an alternate worse case scenario that I am missing ??? which results in unlimited losses???
Does the basic primise that I want to buy the underlying stock make the difference to the writing naked put case???
Please guide me in my endavour of making value investments more valuable
Regards,
Rishi
I want to start this new thread as there is something on my mind that has been bugging me for a long time and I would like to share it with the forum and hopefully get an answer.
Ok heres the premise, I am a value investor and normally stick to the contrarian calls based on value analysis. I am an investor and tend to hold my buys for a long time/3-5yrs
Currently I am looking at ONGC SAIL OIL and GRASIM all these stocks belong to
Mcap >10000Cr
Ev/ebitda < 10
Interest cover >4
ROCE>25 (trailing FY10) and
dividend yield (3yr avg n 1 yr) above 2% (except grasim -1.2%)
I would like to OWN these stocks, but think that based on the short term news flow/sentiment the stocks may slide even further. I think they are good buys even at current prices, but hey who doesnt like a discount if it can be had???
Now in classical sense of options, my american friends suggest to me that i should write a put option on the stock that i want own at Current Market Price (CMP) (10% lower strike price than CMP- 1 month expiry). Eg if CMP is Rs 100 I sud write a naked put option of strike price Rs 90. case 1 the stock price stay above the strike price Rs 90 I pocket the primium and get the stock at strike price. case 2 the stock price falls below the strike price of Rs 90 say to Rs 80 (20% drop in a month!) and I have to buy the stocks at strike price i.e. Rs 90 (which in theory still sud be a good deal as i was ready to buy them at a much higher price of Rs 100!!). This sounded full proof way for buying stocks at a discount 1 month later considering that I wud like to own at current CMP. whats 1 month to an investor with a 3-5 yrs perspective???
Now all said n done, in the indian scenario, options are settled in cash not in stocks and then there is the talk abt unlimited risk (??) associated with the naked put. Am I missing somethin??? how can the risk be unlimited when in the worse case scenario (of case 2 above) the stock price can only go to 0 ie max loss is (strike price* lot size-premium paid). Say in case of SAIL above 1 lot=1000 strike price say 150 (roughly 10% below CMP). Say i write a put option (1 month) and get a premium of approx Rs 2 ie Rs 2000 in all. Now in the worst case scenario if SAIL goes to 0 my loss 150*1000-2000= Rs 148000
This is very much a definite loss as opposed to unlimited loss!!!!! Rs 1.4l loss at the expense of a max profit of Rs 2k is bad... but the probability of SAIL going to 0 in a month is practically 0!!!! a more likely worse case scenario is Rs 100 (approx 25% loss) ie total loss 50*1000-2000= Rs 48000
Now considering that i was thinkin of owning the stock at Rs 166, if i had done so, one month later I wud have suffered Rs 66/share so if i wud have bot 1000 (ie rs 1.66lakh) shares my loss wud have been Rs 66k!!!
being a newbie in option writing I am not sure if all the things that I wrote above make sense or is there an alternate worse case scenario that I am missing ??? which results in unlimited losses???
Does the basic primise that I want to buy the underlying stock make the difference to the writing naked put case???
Please guide me in my endavour of making value investments more valuable
Regards,
Rishi