Hello Everyone,
I am new to the derivatives market and would like to know why the indian market becomes volatile close to expiry? From what I have read my understanding is that here the derivative market is separated from the cash segment i.e. all future trades are settled in cash. So there should not be any arbitrage effects as well. My understanding may be wrong. Please correct me if I am wrong. Thanks in advance. Any help from seniors is highly appreciated..
Regards
dgplearner
I am new to the derivatives market and would like to know why the indian market becomes volatile close to expiry? From what I have read my understanding is that here the derivative market is separated from the cash segment i.e. all future trades are settled in cash. So there should not be any arbitrage effects as well. My understanding may be wrong. Please correct me if I am wrong. Thanks in advance. Any help from seniors is highly appreciated..
Regards
dgplearner